Chitika

Friday 30 September 2011

Quiz 27 | English for IBPS – Part 7 | Fill in the Blanks

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I was born and …(1)… up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to …(2)… the rice that
we grew. …(3)… the better quality ‘white’ rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the …(4)… quality ‘red’ rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had …(5)… money in the house, so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for …(6)… of us she would use the red rice. I was …(7)… by her behaviour.

One day, I asked her why she did this ? She …(8)… and said something I will never forget. “…(9)… whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second best.” …(10)… director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me.

1. (A) raised
(B) adopted
(C) grown
(D) brought
(E) grew

2. (A) pick
(B) save
(C) supply
(D) cultivate
(E) store

3. (A) Instead
(B) While
(C) Yet
(D) Therefore
(E) For

4. (A) less
(B) worse
(C) defective
(D) inferior
(E) best

5. (A) plenty
(B) vast
(C) lots
(D) sufficiently
(E) much

6. (A) all
(B) remaining
(C) gathering
(D) none
(E) those

7. (A) puzzled
(B) confusing
(C) worrying
(D) frightened
(E) angry

8. (A) pleased
(B) shouted
(C) smiled
(D) advised
(E) hugged

9. (A) remember
(B) pray
(C) memorise
(D) think
(E) appeal

10. (A) when
(B) since
(C) only
(D) perhaps
(E) as

 

ANSWERS

1. (D)

2. (E)

3. (B)

4. (D)

5. (E)

6. (A)

7. (A)

8. (C)

9. (A)

10. (E)

Quiz 28 | English for IBPS – Part 8 | Fill in the Blanks

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Without doubt there is one thing (…1…) to all of us-We have played a game at some time in our lives. Most of us play to relax or have fun, but for many playing a game or a sport is a way to (…2…) poverty behind. Infact, in many African countries, playing a sport professionally can (…3…) the lives of a person’s entire family.

For example, in the samll town of Bekoji, in Ethiopia (…4…) than a hundred boys and girls can be seen running at dawn everyday. Each of these youth is (…5…) and serious and their coach is (…6…) that one of them will be a world champion. This seems like an idle (…7…) but it is virtually a guarantee in this small community (…8…) mainly farmers. Many of the fastest male and female distance runners in the world hail from this small town. A small handpainted sign which greets visitors outside Bekoji (…9…) “Welcome to the Village of Athletes”. Children here start running at an early age, (…10…) great distance to fetch water and firewood or to reach, school. At the Olympics, runners from this small town are likely to win more medals than those from developed countries. It will give their families a way out of poverty.

1. (A) accepted
(B) common
(C) alike
(D) similar
(E) popular
Ans : (B)

2. (A) alleviate
(B) forgot
(C) prevent
(D) reduce
(E) leave
Ans : (E)

3. (A) changes
(B) arrange
(C) control
(D) transform
(E) shift
Ans : (D)

4. (A) further
(B) more
(C) greater
(D) over
(E) larger
Ans : (B)

5. (A) concentrated
(B) rival
(C) focused
(D) playful
(E) performed
Ans : (C)

6. (A) convince
(B) optimist
(C) intended
(D) privilege
(E) confident
Ans : (E)

7. (A) boast
(B) suspicion
(C) risk
(D) worship
(E) precaution
Ans : (A)

8. (A) existing
(B) that
(C) comprising
(D) consisting
(E) for
Ans : (C)

9. (A) warn
(B) inform
(C) notices
(D) reads
(E) wish
Ans : (D)

10. (A) covering
(B) driving
(C) measuring
(D) following
(E) competing
Ans : (A)

Quiz 29 | English for IBPS – Part 9 | Fill in the Blanks

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

My father …(1)… a small estate in Punjab; I …(2)… the third of five sons. When, I was fourteen years …(3) …, my father sent me to college. But as it was expensive, I …(4)… after staying there for three years. I was then apprenticed to Mr. Bose, a well known surgeon. I worked …(5)…him for four years. During this period, my father would send me some money, which I used to study navigation, because I always felt that I would one day …(6)… to faraway lands.

When I …(7)… Mr. Bose, my father sent me to medical college. After …(8)… three years there, Mr. Bose got me the position of doctor on a ship. I …(9)… on the ship for three and a half years, after which I thought I would settle down in Kolkata. My master Mr. Bose used to send me some of his patients and I bought a small house. After a …(10)…, I got married to a local girl.

1. (A) live
(B) sell
(C) owned
(D) own
(E) lived
Ans : (C)

2. (A) was
(B) had
(C) for
(D) is
(E) wanted
Ans : (A)

3. (A) aged
(B) older
(C) elder
(D) age
(E) old
Ans : (E)

4. (A) leave
(B) went
(C) gone
(D) left
(E) go
Ans : (D)

5. (A) of
(B) under
(C) within
(D) to
(E) off
Ans : (B)

6. (A) visited
(B) travel
(C) flying
(D) visit
(E) travelling
Ans : (B)

7. (A) with
(B) finished
(C) leave
(D) wait
(E) left
Ans : (E)

8. (A) spent
(B) study
(C) complete
(D) nearly
(E) casual
Ans : (D)

9. (A) ran
(B) work
(C) stayed
(D) sleep
(E) travel
Ans : (C)

10. (A) while
(B) brief
(C) pause
(D) time
(E) stay
Ans : (A)

Quiz 30 | English for IBPS – Part 10 | Fill in the Blanks

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he …(1)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never …(2)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(3)… to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(4)… time. He was …(5)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was …(6)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich …(7)… when the plant was commissioned.

 

Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(8)… all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of

Management, which allows its professors to …(9)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(10)… of the Institute’s success.

 

1. (A) achieved

(B) implemented

(C) visualised

(D) persevered

(E) aimed

 

2. (A) moved

(B) shifts

(C) missed

(D) changes

(E) lost

 

3. (A) Contrary

(B) Opposite

(C) Yet

(D) Obedient

(E) Different

 

4. (A) any

(B) mean

(C) short

(D) no

(E) less

 

5. (A) known

(B) calculating

(C) certain

(D) dreamt

(E) surely

 

6. (A) operational

(B) install

(C) use

(D) produced

(E) new

 

7. (A) supply

(B) diversity

(C) rewards

(D) pay

(E) knowledge

 

8. (A) thought

(B) tried

(C) wished

(D) encourage

(E) wanted

 

9. (A) expand

(B) function

(C) chose

(D) run

(E) risk

 

10. (A) responsibility

(B) secret

(C) guarantee

(D) prize

(E) value

 

ANSWERS

1. (B)

2. (C)

3. (A)

4. (D)

5. (B)

6. (A)

7. (C)

8. (E)

9. (D)

10. (B)

Quiz 26 | English for IBPS – Part 6 | Fill in the Blanks

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

What this approach lacks is the essential interaction with …(1)… and with other humans. Indeed in many environmental activities the …(2)… takes place. A classic example of this is making of a herbarium or even worse, an insect …(3)…, so common in both formal and nonformal education in India. A child is …(4)… encouraged to pluck leaves and …(5)… and run after butterflies with a net and is …(6)… of a large group of children similarly working a …(7)… of nature within it. Such a child is not likely to develop any strong …(8)… of respect for nature, or for the individual ‘specimens’ pressed in the …(9)… file or trapped in a jar. It is worse when the activity is also competitive, i.e., who …(10)… the maximum.

1. (A) habit
(B) tradition
(C) practice
(D) custom
(E) nature

2. (A) antonym
(B) against
(C) enemy
(D) opposite
(E) opponent

3. (A) gathering
(B) compilation
(C) collection
(D) assembly
(E) bulk

4. (A) oft
(B) often
(C) frequently
(D) mostly
(E) many

5. (A) flowers
(B) petals
(C) buds
(D) blossoms
(E) delight

6. (A) division
(B) segment
(C) particle
(D) portion
(E) part

7. (A) piece
(B) thatch
(C) plot
(D) patch
(E) spot

8. (A) thinking
(B) experiencing
(C) feeling
(D) knowing
(E) viewing

9. (A) sapling
(B) plant
(C) creeper
(D) nursery
(E) tree

10. (A) collects
(B) meets
(C) piles
(D) gathers
(E) assembles

 

Answers

1. (E)

2. (D)

3. (C)

4. (B)

5. (A)

6. (E)

7. (D)

8. (C)

9. (B)

10. (A)

Quiz 25 | English for IBPS – Part 5 | Reading Comprehension

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In the Indian scenario there are various prestigious scholarships that are available for the meritorious. Apart from the scholarship you can start off with, immediately after your school education, i.e., the NTSE (National Talent Search Examinations), there are further scholarships for higher studies in various categories.

The Ministry of Human Resource Development has several schemes whereby it funds students for their education within the country and abroad. Besides, the ministry also offers scholarships and fellowships to those trying to pursue a career in the fine arts, such as music, dance, theatre, painting and sculpture. Information regarding these regularly appear in the Employment News and National and regional dailies.

Various opportunities are available for those students who want to build their careers in academics. The ICHR (Indian Council of Historical Research) the ICPR (Indian Council of Philosophical Research), and the ICSSR (Indian Council of Social Science Research) award scholarships and fellowships to those interested in higher studies in the fields of History, Philosophy and inter-disciplinary areas.

One thing of seminal importance is the choice of subject. It is not important whether you get umpteen (many) degrees and file them away or you go to the choicest University to feel alienated from what you are doing. To judge this there are various tests like the aptitude test that some Universities abroad conduct. At the end of the test, you are sure about what you want to study and whether you are suited for it. A good number of career consultants is available and they can guide you in the right directions. Apart from personal directions some of these also hold workshops. The Institute of Career studies at Delhi is amongst the pioneers in this field. After you get enrolled with it, you are provided with ample information about all Universities all-over the world and it also keeps you updated with minute details.

Along with the subject, selecting the University too is vital, since it determines future prospects. However for most, selection also involves other considerations, such as the socio-political, cultural and intellectual climate prevalent in that country and of course, the monetary considerations involved for the student who undertakes the course fully or partially on his own cost.

Talking of cost, shared scholarships are available with British Universities, which are funded by the foreign and commonwealth offices. The scheme operates with four British Universities—Cambridge, Oxford, Leicester and the London School of Economics and Political Science. Other Universities likely to participate are Durham, Wales, Warwick and the Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine. The scholarships cover tuition fees and maintenance costs. However, the scholars have to pay for airfares. The normal method of application for candidates is to state, at the time of applying to the University of their choice, to be considered for one of these shared scholarships.

1. What is available to most intelligent students in Indian context ?
(A) Offers of higher jobs
(B) Various prestigious scholarships
(C) Admission opportunities in various good Universities
(D) Fellowships
(E) None of these

2. What for does the abbreviation NTSE stand ?
(A) No Tuition Service Exists
(B) National Tutorial Survey Estimates
(C) National Talent Search Examination
(D) National Total Service Examination
(E) No Test in Social Employment

3. As per passage, for what does the Ministry of Human Resource Development provide scholarships to students ?
1. For their education within country and abroad.
2. For fine arts that is music, dance, theatre, painting and sculpture.
3. For C.A., M.B.A. and mechanical training.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Both 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following does not award or provide scholarships and fellowships to those who are interested in higher studies in the fields of History and Philosophy and inter-disciplinary areas ?
(A) Indian Council of Historical Research
(B) Indian Council of Rural Higher Education
(C) Indian Council of Philosophical Research
(D) Indian Council of Social-Science Research
(E) None of these

5. According to author, why do foreign Universities conduct various tests like the aptitude test ?
1. To see the choice of subject.
2. To judge the number of degrees one has.
3. Whether the student is interested in the University or not.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Both 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) All three 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

6. Which of the following is one of the best guides in the field of career studies selection ?
(A) Institute of Social Sciences Ambedkar University, Agra
(B) Career and courses agencies
(C) The Institute of Career Studies at Delhi
(D) A.M.U. Aligarh
(E) None of these

7. According to the passage, which of the following is not true ?
(A) There are further scholarships for higher studies in various categories
(B) One thing of primary importance is the selection of subject
(C) The scholarships cover tuition fees and maintenance costs
(D) The Employment News does not publish information regarding these scholarships
(E) None of these

8. What does the Institute of Career-Studies at Delhi do after you get enrolled with it ?
(A) It assures a good job on good package
(B) It bears your all responsibilities
(C) You are provided with sufficient information about all Universities all-over the world; it also keeps you updated with minute details
(D) It administers strict discipline over the students to bring them on line
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following founded shared scholarships are available with British Universities ?
(A) Founded by British and India Government
(B) By U.S.A. and U.K.
(C) By the foreign and commonwealth offices
(D) Founded by U.A.R. and U.K.
(E) Founded by Britain and Pakistan

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

10. Meritorious
(A) Wire
(B) Deserving
(C) Diligent
(D) Intelligent
(E) Ranker

11. Resource
(A) Source
(B) Skill
(C) Stock
(D) Means
(E) Way

12. Consultants
(A) Friendly
(B) Guide
(C) Informer
(D) Adviser
(E) Counsellors

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

13. Personal
(A) General
(B) Impersonal
(C) Public
(D) Common
(E) Joint

14. Foreign
(A) Aboriginal
(B) Connected
(C) Native
(D) Local
(E) Inborn

15. Normal
(A) Special
(B) Insane
(C) Contrary
(D) Abnormal
(E) Unnatural

ANSWERS

1. (B)

2. (C)

3. (D)

4. (B)

5. (C)

6. (C)

7. (D)

8. (C)

9. (C)

10. (B)

11. (D)

12. (E)

13. (B)

14. (C)

15. (D)

Quiz 22 | English for IBPS – Part 2 | Reading Comprehension

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Crude oil has had a long history, and interesting one. It is probably one single natural resource that has been instrumental in producing maximum conflicts and wars during the last century. With such a track record, it is surprising that in the given environment, where in oil prices are breaking all records, and has become the biggest cause of concern across the globe, why is it that there is silence from some parts of the world`? It is intriguing especially when some have been paying a much higher price on fuel, as compared to their poorer counterparts. It is surprising, more so, when one realizes that the number of oil producing nations is only a handful as compared to the number of oil consuming nations. While a proactive action from the mighty and powerful can bring in a huge respite for the world, why is it that they choose to be silent ? Also, keeping in mind the fact that a few nations–both powerful and weak have some of the largest unused oil reserves,their silence and lack of any serious action look all the more aberrant. Looking at the manner things are shaping up, it just cannot be ruled out that possibly these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil. The question then is what could their underlying interest be ?

In all probability, what we are seeing right now is just a precursor to the larger picture, well laid out by them may be for the good. With rising prices, the OPEC might be delighted right now, but perhaps they are unable to see what is going to hit them. For this unprecedented rise in oil is creating a most demanding environment for alternative fuels. As and when the reserves deplete and demand really grows, more than anyone else, it is OPEC that would be badly hit, much to the glee of some nations having unused reserves which have the most to gain by using blackmailing tactics. Eventually, the countries at the receiving end would be forced to create an enabling environment for alternative energy. This trend is already visible, with India showing the way with its nuclear deal and other countries dangling the carrot of complete conversion to natural gas towards other countries in order to boost their own business. By doing so they are creating a tactical pressure on countries. As they know that the further the oil prices get pushed, the more the globe would become attracted and ready for alternative and non-conventional fuel. Moreover, for many of the countries, it might become more expensive to invest in newer technologies to conform to the emission norms than to shift to alternative sources, making the market even more attractive. And it is then that the organizations which have already invested billions of dollars in alternate fuels would mop up the global energy market completely.

The second possible reason why some nations of the world are not too enthusiastic to mitigate the price of oil is because the rising oil price is perhaps one of the major deterrents to growth of other countries. Perhaps they were hand in glove in the mechanism to raise the oil price and knowing well that this would make these nations feel the pinch. And now, the rising oil prices have put these nations in a fix. As the pressure of inflationary tendencies increases these countries cannot afford either to sit back and remain entrapped in the larger conspiracy. No wonder then that these are frantically looking around the globe – especially Africa – for newer reserves ! As it is said, oil has a long history and the legacy continues.

1. What, according to the passage, is the step that the nations are likely to take with an intolerable rise in oil prices ?
(A) Shift to alternate forms of energy
(B) Come to a state of war with other nations
(C) Put tactical pressure on countries having oil reserves
(D) Formulate more stringent emission norms and apply these across the globe
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


2. Why is the author surprised with the stance which various nations have taken pertaining to the current global oil crisis ?
(A) The stance is leading to war among the nations for control over oil fields
(B) Powerful nations have been selling oil at a very inflated rate to under developed nations
(C) Many nations have shifted to alternative forms of energy boycotting the use of oil due to inflated prices
(D) Eventhough oil has been a matter of conflict among the nations earlier, many nations have a kept a silence on the current crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which nations does the author refer to in the phrase ‘these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil’ ?
(A) The mighty and powerful nations
(B) Nations having unused oil reserves
(C) Nations which have exhausted their oil reserves
(D) The nations which have shifted to non-conventional fuels
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage ?
(A) Some nations have kept a silence upon the rising oil price in order to inhibit the growth of other nations
(B) It is more cost effective to shift to alternative forms of energy than to invest in technology for conforming to the emission norms
(C) Some nations have unused oil reserves which would earn these nations heavy profits once the oil reserves elsewhere deplete
(D) India has had a nuclear deal for its energy needs
(E) All are true
Ans : (E)

5. What does the author mean by ‘dangling the carrot’ in the passage ?
(A) Some countries are stringently opposing the conversion to alternative forms of fuel
(B) Some countries have been luring other countries to change over to alternate fuels in order to boost their own business
(C) Some countries are making the effort to save environment by using natural gas instead of oil as a fuel
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is intended in the given passage ?
(A) To highlight the plight of OPEC with rising fuel prices
(B) To urge to the government to shift from oil to natural gas since it is more environment friendly
(C) To highlight the vested interest of some nations in maintaining the indifference to rising oil prices
(D) To urge to save the environment by conforming to the emission norms and using alternate energy sources
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. Why, according to the author, OPEC though delighted currently, would be in difficult situation later ?
(A) All the oil reserves on the earth will soon be exhausted
(B) Powerful nations will try and dominate OPEC later on
(C) As the oil reserves which are being used currently deplete in the time to come, nations having unused oil reserves would arm-twist OPEC
(D) Nations will lose faith in OPEC owing to very high fuel prices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. What, according to the author, makes the market of alternative sources very attractive ?
(A) Many countries have already made a substantial profit in the industry of alternative fuel
(B) Such measures do not cause harm to the environment
(C) Only a few countries of the world will have the access to alternative forms of fuel
(D) The use of alternative sources has been forced upon certain countries by powerful countries
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage ?
(A) Reasons behind silence on increase in oil prices
(B) Nuclear power as an alternative source of energy
(C) The monopoly of oil reserves by powerful countries
(D) The repercussion of shifting to alternative forms of energy
(E) Oil reserves as deterrent of growth of the nations
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. INSTRUMENTAL
(A) Non-vocal
(B) Reasonable
(C) Creditable
(D) Responsible
(E) Liable
Ans : (D)

11. ABERRANT
(A) Curious
(B) Abnormal
(C) Spoilt
(D) Inferior
(E) Nonfunctional
Ans : (B)

12. PUSHED
(A) Dominated
(B) Pressed
(C) Diverted
(D) Thrown
(E) Increased
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word / phrase which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. PROACTIVE
(A) Quick
(B) Over powered
(C) Dormant
(D) Delicate
(E) Brittle
Ans : (C)

14. GLEE
(A) Disappointment
(B) Dishonour
(C) Appreciation
(D) Disillusion
(E) Defeat
Ans : (A)

15. MITIGATE
(A) Fright
(B) Decline
(C) Degeneration
(D) Worsen
(E) Deprivation
Ans : (D)

Quiz 23 | English for IBPS – Part 3 | Reading Comprehension

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Before my many years’ service in a restaurant, I attended a top science university. The year was 2023 and I was finishing the project that would win me my professorship.

My forty-second birthday had made a lonely visit the week before, and I was once again by myself in the flat. Like countless other mornings, I ordered a bagel from the toaster. ‘Yes, sir!’ it replied with robotic relish, and I began the day's work on the project. It was a magnificent machine, the thing I was making– capable of transferring the minds of any two beings into each other’s bodies.

As the toaster began serving my bagel on to a plate, I realized the project was in fact ready for testing. I retrieved the duck and the cat–which I had bought for this purpose from their containers, and set about calibrating the machine in their direction. Once ready, I leant against the table, holding the bagel I was too excited to eat, and initiated the transfer sequence. As expected, the machine whirred and hummed into action, my nerves tingling at its synthetic sounds. The machine hushed, extraction and injection nozzles poised, scrutinizing its targets. The cat, though, was suddenly gripped by terrible alarm. The brute leapt into the air, flinging itself onto the machine. I watched in horror as the nozzles swung towards me; and, with a terrible, psychedelic whirl of colours, felt my mind wrenched from its sockets.


When I awoke, moments later, I noticed first that I was two feet shorter. Then, I realized the lack of my limbs, and finally it occurred to me that I was a toaster. I saw immediately the solution to the situation–the machine could easily reverse the transfer–but was then struck by my utter inability to carry this out. After some consideration, using what I supposed must be the toaster’s onboard computer; I devised a strategy for rescue. I began to familiarize myself with my new body: the grill, the bread bin, the speaker and the spring mechanism. Through the device’s rudimentary eye–with which it served its creations–I could see the internal telephone on the wall. Aiming carefully, I began propelling slices of bread at it. The toaster was fed by a large stock of the stuff, yet as more and more bounced lamely off the phone, I began to fear its exhaustion. Toasting the bread before launch proved a wiser tactic. A slice of crusty wheat knocked the receiver off its cradle, and the immovable voice of the reception clerk answered. Resisting the urge to exclaim my unlikely predicament, I called from the table : ‘‘I’m having a bit of trouble up here, Room 91. Could you lend a hand ?’’ ‘‘Certainly, sir, there’s a burst water pipe on the floor above, I suppose I’ll kill two birds with one stone and sort you out on the way.”

The clerk arrived promptly, and after a detailed and horrifying explanation, finally agreed to press the button on the machine and bring me back to my original state.

1. Why did the author believe that he would earn professorship ?
(A) The author was conducting experiments on his cat and duck
(B) The author was working on making a new toaster
(C) The author was working on a project where he was inventing a new machine
(D) The author thought that he was very intelligent
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Why was the author afraid that the bread would get exhausted ?
(A) Because he thought he would remain a toaster all his life
(B) Because although he was throwing a lot of bread at the phone, the cradle was not coming off the hook
(C) Because there was limited bread in the room
(D) Because the author had forgotten to load bread in the toaster
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. What does the phrase ‘kill two birds with one stone’ used in the passage mean ?
(A) Take care of two things at one time
(B) Kill two birds with one bullet
(C) Kill both the cat and the duck simultaneously
(D) Please the clerk and gain professorship at the same time
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the author bring out the cat and the duck ?
(A) So that they could watch while he performed the experiment
(B) So that he could perform the experiment on them
(C) So that the cat could jump on the machine
(D) So that the author could call the clerk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. The term ‘immovable voice’ as used in the passage means……
(A) hoarse voice
(B) fixed voice
(C) steady voice
(D) loud voice
(E) shaky voice
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The clerk was part of the experiment right from the start
(B) The clerk managed to bring the author back to his original state
(C) The experiment did not go completely as planned
(D) The author’s mind was transferred into the toaster
(E) All of the above are true
Ans : (A)

7. What was the author making ?
(A) He was making a toaster which could talk
(B) He was making a machine which could control animal behaviour
(C) He was making a machine which could convert itself into a toaster
(D) He was making a machine which could exchange the minds of two entities
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why was the author two feet shorter when he woke up ?
(A) Because he was transformed into a duck
(B) Because the cat had jumped on him
(C) Because he was transformed into a telephone
(D) Because he had not made the machine correctly
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. Who does the term 'The brute' used in the passage refer to ?
(A) The author
(B) The toaster
(C) The machine
(D) The clerk
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. How did the author manage to call the clerk ?
(A) By dragging the phone towards himself
(B) By hitting the button on the machine
(C) By shouting for help
(D) By flinging toast at the phone on the wall and then asking the clerk for help
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SYNTHETIC
(A) loud
(B) clothed
(C) real
(D) electronic
(E) soft
Ans : (B)

12. FLINGING
(A) touching
(B) holding
(C) bending
(D) feeling
(E) throwing
Ans : (E)

13. INITIATED
(A) withstand
(B) worked
(C) stopped
(D) started
(E) culminate
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. TERRIBLE
(A) better
(B) wonderful
(C) extreme
(D) awful
(E) fearful
Ans : (B)

15. RUDIMENTARY
(A) advanced
(B) basic
(C) evil
(D) forward
(E) artificial
Ans : (A)

Quiz 24 | English for IBPS – Part 4 | Reading Comprehension

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

There were three big fish living in a beautiful lake by the city. They were very close friends. All three of them were very different from one another. The first fish believed in fate. He thought things cannot be changed and what has to happen will happen, no matter what. The second fish was intelligent. He thought he knew how to solve a problem with his intelligence. The third fish was the wise one. He thought long and hard before acting.

One day, the fish were happily playing around in the water when the wise fish overheard a fisherman talking to another. “Look at that one, what a big fish… This lake is full of big fish. Let us come back tomorrow and catch them.”

On hearing the news, the fish hurriedly swam to his friends. “Let us get out of this lake before those fishermen come back. I know of a canal that can take us to another lake.” The intelligent fish said “I can take care of myself if the fishermen come.” The fish who believed in fate said “whatever has to happen will happen, I was born in this lake and I am not going to leave it. “The wise fish did not want to risk his life and so he took the route through the canal and left his friends.

The fishermen came back the next day and cast their nets. They caught many fish along with the two friends who stayed behind. The intelligent fish acted as if he was dead and escaped. The fishermen threw him back into the lake with all the other dead fish that were caught in the net. However, the fish who believed in fate was caught and killed.

1. Why did the fishermen come back to the lake the next day ?
(A) To admire its beauty
(B) To catch the nice big fish
(C) To take a break
(D) To count the fish
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. Why did the wise fish leave the lake ?
(A) He overhead the fishermen talking about catching them
(B) He was tired of living in the lake
(C) He had a fight with his friends
(D) He was asked to leave by the Head fish
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. How did the intelligent fish save his life ?
(A) He pleaded with the fishermen to let him go
(B) He escaped to another lake
(C) He jumped off the net
(D) He pretended to be dead
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. What shocking news did the wise fish give his friends ?
(A) That he did not want to be friends with them any more
(B) That he was sick and dying
(C) That he had overheard the fishermen’s plans of catching them
(D) That he wanted to leave the lake
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. How did the wise fish escape ?
(A) By taking a ride on the fishermen’s boat
(B) By pretending to be dead
(C) Only (A) and (B)
(D) From the canal
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What is the moral of the story ?
(A) Always listen to your friends
(B) Slow and steady wins the race
(C) Follow the crowd
(D) Intelligence is stronger than power
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 7-8) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold is used in the passage.

7. Close
(A) Near
(B) Best
(C) Determined
(D) Secure
(E) Good
Ans : (B)

8. Route
(A) Road
(B) Lane
(C) Path
(D) Side
(E) Direction
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 9-10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Cast
(A) Release
(B) Retrieve
(C) Laid
(D) Scattered
(E) Sorted
Ans : (B)

10. Risk
(A) Disrupt
(B) Endanger
(C) Save
(D) Disturb
(E) Gamble
Ans : (C)

Quiz 21 | English for IBPS – Part 1 | Reading Comprehension

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Bhaskar was a wealthy, wordly wise merchant. On his deathbed, he called his only son, Nakul, and gave him some advice. “When you do business and travel to an unknown land, make sure you know the local culture well. Try to gain as much information as you can. This and presence of mind will come to your rescue.” Bhaskar died a few days later and Nakul began looking after the business. Once, he travelled by ship to a distant country where he stayed at an inn. He began talking to the owner and ended up telling him all about his life and the business had come to conduct.

The following day, Nakul was heading to the bustling market when a one armed man rushed up to him and said, “Your father took one of my arms as a loan. You must return it to me.” Not knowing what to do, Nakul asked the man to meet him the next day. A little later, a woman came upto Nakul and said, “Your father married me and would send me money every month. This responsibility is now yours.” Again Nakul asked for a day’s respite and walked on. On the way he stopped at a tavern and ate breakfast. While paying for his meal the owner said, “The only payment I want is for you to make me happy.” Though he had to pay only two coins, Nakul gave the man five, but the man still maintained that he was unhappy. That evening Nakul met a man who invited him to a game of dice. Unaware they were playing with a trick dice, he lost every game. The winner set him an unusual condition, “Drink all the water in the sea or give me all the goods on your ship.” Nakul said he would give him his decision the next day. That night as Nakul lay on his bed, he remembered his father’s words, “In a foreign land only your wits will come to your aid.”

The next morning, as soon as he reached the marketplace, the one armed man appeared. Nakul smiled when he saw him and said, “My father took many such loans and our house is full of hands. I shall take your other arm, find the matching one and repay you.” The man ran away petrified. He then approached the woman who claimed to have been married to his father. “My father was wrong not to tell us about you. Come home with me and help my mother in the fields.” The woman left without a word. Next, Nakul went to the tavern and standing outside shouted, “Hail the King ! Your king is great !” “I am happy to hear you say that”, was the only response the tavern owner could give.“ If you are happy,” continued Nakul, “I have paid for my meal.” Nakul then sought out the man who had won at dice the previous night. “I shall gladly drink all the water in the sea provided you bring me the water in jugs.” The man made a quick getaway when he heard this. Nakul returned home after conducting much business. He was far richer in wisdom too.

1. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) Nakul preferred sailing to working in the fields with his mother.
(2) Bhaskar’s second wife was a greedy woman.
(3) Bhaskar did not have faith in Nakul’s ability to successfully run the business.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Both (1) & (3)
(D) Both (2) & (3)
(E) Only (2)

2. Why did Nakul visit a far-away country ?
(A) It was his father’s final request
(B) To acquire knowledge about a different culture
(C) To mee some of his father’s acquaintances
(D) To trade and do business
(E) None of these

3. How did Nakul manage to deal with the people who tried to swindle him ?
(1) His father provided him with the solution in a dream.
(2) He threatened them with dire punishment.
(3) He gave into their demands and paid them off.
(A) None
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) None of these

4. Why wasn’t Nakul able to win any of the games while gambling ?
(A) He was not a skilful player
(B) He was distracted while playing
(C) The other players were cheating with a trick dice
(D) He was not well versed with local rules
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following best describes the one armed man’s reaction when he met Nakul for the second time ?
(A) He was upset because Nakul refused to honour the debt his father owed him
(B) He was angry at Nakul for laughing at his plight
(C) He was frightened since Nakul had threatened to cut-off his remaining arm
(D) He was worried about what action Nakul would take against him for trying to cheat him
(E) He admired Nakul for outwitting him.

6. Why did Nakul confide in the innkeeper ?
(A) The innkeeper was an old friend of his father
(B) He was drunk and unaware he was confiding in a stranger
(C) He was still upset by his father’s death and wanted to talk to someone
(D) By confiding in the innkeeper he hoped to get information about the local customs
(E) None of these

7. Why did Nakul pay the tavern owner five coins instead of two ?
(A) Not being familiar with the foreign currency he made a mistake
(B) Nakul did not have the exact change
(C) He left a tip to show his appreciation for a good meal
(D) He thought the extra money would make the innkeeper happy
(E) He wanted to create a favourable impression

8. Which of the following can be said about Nakul’s father ?
(A) He was adventurous and had travelled all over the world
(B) He was rich and experienced in the ways of the world
(C) He was prosperous because he had duped a lot of people
(D) He favoured Nakul among all his children
(E) He was poor and knew about various cultures

9. Why did Nakul have a good opinion of the King of the faraway country ?
(1) He encouraged trade and his subjects were prosperous.
(2) He ensured that visitors were treated with hospitality.
(3) There were many facilities for entertainment there.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) & (3)
(D) Only (3)
(E) None of these

10. What was Nakul’s overall experience in the far-away country ?
(A) It was an unpleasant one and he decided it would be his last trip
(B) It was a profitable one and he learnt a lot
(C) It was stressful and he was glad to return home
(D) It was sad since people kept recounting memories of his father
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in EANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. conduct
(A) behaviour
(B) handle
(C) action
(D) habits
(E) guide

12. respite
(A) stop
(B) part
(C) delay
(D) rest
(E) relax

13. unknown
(A) undecided
(B) anonymous
(C) renowned
(D) unidentified
(E) unfamiliar

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. appeared
(A) evaporated
(B) died
(C) invisible
(D) vanished
(E) faded

15. matching
(A) duplicate
(B) dissimilar
(C) original
(D) identical
(E) single

 

ANSWERS

1. (E)

2. (D)

3. (E)

4. (C)

5. (C)

6. (D)

7. (D)

8. (B)

9. (B)

10. (B)

11. (B)

12. (E)

13. (E)

14. (D)

15. (B)

Quiz 20 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 10

Q1: One kilobyte is equal to

1.3 1000 bytes

2. 1024 bytes

3. 100 bytes

4. 1023 bytes

Answer: 2

 

Q2: Which of the following is a cellulose fiber?

1. Cotton

2. Wool

3. Rayon

4. Polyester

Answer: 1

 

Q3: Which of the following is not an example of Operating System?

1. Windows 98

2. BSD Unix

3. Microsoft Office XP

4. Red Hat Linux

Answer: 3

 

Q4: Which of the following vitamins helps in the absorption of calcium?

1. Vitamin A

2. Vitamin B

3. Vitamin C

4. Vitamin D

Answer: 4

 

Q5: Dengue fever is spread by

1. Aedes aegypti mosquito

2. Common House flies

3. Anophilies mosquito

4. Rodent like rats and squirrels

Answer: 1

 

Q6: Which of the following is not a fundamental right of the Indian citizens?

1. Right to property

2. Right to freedom of expression

3. Right to vote

4. Right to remain silence

Answer: 1

 

Q7: Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

1.Param

2. Super 301

3. Compaq Presario

4. CRAY YMP

Answer: 1

 

Q8: Genome is the key to tomorrow's medical practices because

1. It unleashes an information revolution

2. It provides a new outlook into medicine

3. It is a new way of making drugs

4.3 It can enable customized medicines.

Answer: 2

 

Q9: Which of the following is not a missile tested in Indian Missile Programme?

1. Agni

2. Trishul

3. Prithvi

4. Arjun

Answer: 4

 

Q10: Mahatma Gandhi started his struggle against apartheid in

1. Natal

2. Transvaal

3. Johannesberg

4. Champaran

Answer: 1

Quiz 17 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 7

Q1: Shankarlal Guru committee was associated With

1. Agricultural Marketing

2. Agricultural production

3. Public Distribution System

4. None of above

Answer: 1

 

Q2: IMF is the result of

1. Hawana Conference

2. Rome Conference

3. Brettonwood Conference

4. Geneva Conference

Answer: 3

 

Q3: The Difference between Gross Domestic product and Net Domestic product is

1. Government Revenue

2. Net Indirect Tax (Indirect Tax Subsidy)

3. Consumption of fixed Capital

4. Net Capital Formation

Answer: 4

 

Q4: First share market in India was established in

1. Delhi

2. Mumbai

3. Kolkata

4. chennai

Answer: 2

 

Q5: The acronym STD written on Telephone booth stands for

1. Straight Telephone Dial

2. Switch Telephone Dial

3. Subscriber Telephone Dialing

4. Save Telephone Dialing

Answer: 3

 

Q6: India has signed a landamrk deal for sale of Dhruv Advance Light Helicopters (ALHs) with

1. Venezuela

2. Peru

3. Ecuador

4. Chile

Answer: 3

 

Q7: Humidity is measured by which of the following instrument?

1. Barometer

2. Thermometer

3. Hygrometer

4. Hydrometer

Answer: 3

 

Q8: Rabindranath Tagore was awarded Noble Prize for his literary work named

1. Geetanjali

2. Rajtarangini

3. Chokher Bali

4. Kapal Kundala

Answer: 1

 

Q9: Which of the following department of Indian Government takes care of education of children with physical disabilities?

1. Ministry of Welfare

2. Ministry of Sports

3. Ministry of HRD

4. Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: 1

 

Q10: Amrita Pritam's work "A Revenue Stamp" is

1. A book of stories

2. A novel

3. A biography

4. An autobiography

Answer: 4

Quiz 18 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 8

Q1: "Nadi Ke Dweep" is the creation of

1. Nirmala Verma

2. Krishna Sobit

3. Gajanan Madhav Muktibodh

4. Sachidananda Heeranand Vatsyayan Agyeya

Answer: 4

 

Q2: The poetic work "Rashmirathi" was written by

1. Maithilisharan Gupt

2. Mahadevi Verma

3. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar

4. Surya Kant Tripathi Nirala

Answer: 3

 

Q3: "Operation Black Board" refers to providing schools with

1. Enough number of black boards

2. New type of black boards

3. Training for using new type of black boards

4. All essential learning materials.

Answer: 4

 

Q4: Transistors used in electronic equipments are mostly made of

1. Silver

2. Copper

3. Silicon

4. Carbon

Answer: 3

 

Q5: The disease diphtheria affects

1. Lungs

2. Intestine

3. Throat

4. Body joints

Answer: 3

 

Q6: Which of the following is the brightest planet as seen from the earth?

1. Mercury

2. Uranus

3. Venus

4. Mars

Answer: 3

 

Q7: The Harry Potter series is written by

1. K K Rowling

2. K J Rowling

3. J K Rowling

4. A K Rowling

Answer: 3

 

Q8: The most common communicable disease is

1. Influenza

2. Typhoid

3. Cholera

4. Polio

Answer: 1

 

Q9: Among the following, the richest source of protein is

1. Ground Nut

2. Rice

3. Potato

4. Apple

Answer: 1

 

Q10: Taoism is a school of

1. Chinese philosophy

2. Japanese philosophy

3. Buddhist philosophy

4. Sri Lankan philosophy

Answer: 1

Quiz 19 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 9

Q1: Hydrogen is used instead of Helium to fill balloons for meteorology because

1. of its low density

2. It is not very reactive under normal conditions

3. It is almost insoluble in water

4. It can be prepared easily

Answer: 1

 

Q2: The most abundant element in the earth's crust is

1. Silicon

2. Aluminium

3. Nitrogen

4. Oxygen

Answer: 4

 

Q3: Stainless steel is an example of

1. A metallic compound

2. A homogeneous mixture

3. A heterogeneous mixture

4. An inorganic compound

Answer: 1

 

Q4: The Non-Cooperation Movement was ultimately withdrawn by Mahatma Gandhi

1. On the directions of the Party

2. On account of amicable settlement with the British

3. On account of violent incidents at Chauri-Chaura

4. On account of excessive repression by the Government

Answer: 3

 

Q5: The Preamble of the Constitution after 42nd amendment declares India

1. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

2. Sovereign Democratic Republic

3. Federal Democratic Republic

4. Federal Socialist Democratic Republic

Answer: 1

 

Q6: The International Date Line is the

1. Equator

2. 0° Longitude

3. 88° East Longitude

4. 180° Longitude

Answer: 4

 

Q7: The real executive power under a Parliamentary Government rests with

1. The Parliament

2. The King

3. The Council of Ministers

4. The Civil Servants

Answer: 3

 

Q8: Who among the following was the first Maratha Ruler to get legal recognition from the Mughals?

1. Sahuji

2. Shivaji

3. Balaji Baji Rao

4. Sambhaji

Answer: 1

 

Q9: The average solar day is approximately

1. 24 hrs

2. 24 hrs 15 minutes

3. 24 hrs 52 minutes

4. 24 hrs 15 Second

Answer: 1

 

Q10: The constellation Sapta-Rishi is known to westerns as the

1. Seven Monks

2. Alpha Centauri

3. Big Dipper

4. Small Bear

Answer: 3

Quiz 13 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 3

Q1: SAIL's plant in Karnataka is situated at

1. Bangalore

2. Bhadravati

3. Belgaum

4. Hubli

Answer: 2

 

Q2: At which of the following place Rajiv Gandhi died of human bomb explosion?

1. New Delhi

2. Chennai

3. Sriperumbudur

4. Colombo

Answer: 3

 

Q3: Who is not the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ever?

1. Somnath Chatterjee

2. P. A. Sangma

3. Meira Kumar

4. Sushma Swaraj

Answer: 4

 

Q4: The Governor General associated with the abolition of slavery was

Cornwallis

1. Bentinck

2. Dalhousie

3. Rippon

4. Answer: 2

 

Q5: The name of India's first carrier is

1. INS Vikrant

2. INS Nilgiri

3. INS Kukri

4. INS Himgiri

Answer: 1

 

Q6: The general direct flow of summer monsoon in India is -

1. From South to North

2. From South West to South East

3. From South East to South West

4. From South West to North East

Answer: 2

 

Q7: World No-Tobacco Day is observed on -

1. May 25

2. May 31

3. May28

4. May 24

Answer: 2

 

Q8: Which one of the following ecosystems covers the largest area of the earth's surface?

1. Desert Ecosystem

2. Grassland Ecosystem

3. Mountain Ecosystem

4. Marine Ecosystem

Answer: 4

 

Q9: With which game is the Double Fault associated?

1. Lawn Tennis

2. Football

3. Cricket

4. Hockey

Answer: 2

 

Q10: Where is the oldest oil refinery in India located?

1. Digboi

2. Cochin

3. Mathura

4. Guwahati

Answer: 1

Quiz 14 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 4

Q: The Siwaliks stretch between -

1. Indus and Sutlaj

2. Potwar basin and Teesta

3. Sutlaj and Kali

4. None of these

Answer: 2

 

Q2: Thalassaemia is a hereditary disease affecting -

1. Blood

2. Lungs

3. Heart

4. Kidney

Answer: 1

 

Q3: Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerization of -

1. Methane

2. Styrene

3. Acetylene

4. Ethylene

Answer: 4

 

Q4: In cricket the length of pitch between the two wickets is -

1. 24 yards

2. 23 yards

3. 22 yards

4. 21 yards

Answer: 3

 

Q5: Which one of the following is not the official language of the United Nations Organisation?

1. Arabic

2. Chinese

3. Portuguese

4. Spanish

Answer: 3

 

Q6: Which countries are separated by Mac Mohan Line?

1. India and Pakistan

2. China and Tibet

3. India and China

4. India and Bangladesh

Answer: 3

 

Q7: Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin A

2. Vitamin C

3. Vitamin D

4. Vitamin K

Answer: 2

 

Q8: Among the following who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas?

1. Rabi Ray

2. Shivraj Patil

3. P. A. Sangma

4. G. M. C Balyogi

Answer: 4

 

Q9: 'Lakshya' which is part of Indian Defence System is

1. Surface of air missile

2. Missile Firing Submarine

3. multi Barrel rocket System

4. Pilotless target aircraft

Answer: 4

 

Q10: Which one of the following states has only one representatives each in Lok Sabha?

1. Manipur, Meghalaya

2. Himachal Pradesh and Jammu Kashmir

3. Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura

4. Mizoram and Nagaland

Answer: 4

Quiz 15 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 5

Q1: Who among the following is known as the guardian of the Public Purse in India?

1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

2. The President

3. The Minister of Finance

4. The parliament

Answer: 1

 

Q2: Biological Oxygen demand (BOD) is used as a standard measure of

1. Oxygen level in forest System

2. Oxygen level in animals

3. Oxygen level in water system

4. Oxygen level in atmosphere

Answer: 3

 

Q3: Which of the following Crops is of Kharif Season?

1. Soyabean

2. Linseed

3. lentil

4. Mustard

Answer: 1

 

Q4: Fruit most suitable for making jelly is

1. Papaya

2. Karunda

3. Mango

4. Banana

Answer: 3

 

Q5: Who was the first chief Justice of Supreme court of Calcutta?

1. Hyde

2. Elijah Impey

3. Lemaistre

4. Monson

Answer: 2

 

Q6: By which of the following Acts were the Commercial Rights of East India Company Abolished?

1. Regulating Act of 1773

2. Charter Act of 1813

3. Charter Act of 1833

4. Charter Act of 1853

Answer: 3

 

Q7: Who Was the founder of All India Muslim League?

1. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

2. Nawab Saleem Ullah Khan

3. Liyaqat Ali Khan

4. Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Answer: 2

 

Q8: Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant obtains its iron ore from the mines of

1. Bababudan

2. Bailadila

3. Dalli-Rajhra

4.Gurumahisaini

Answer: 1

 

Q9: The First Finance Commission was constituted in the year

1. 1956

2. 1953

3. 1952

4. 1951

Answer: 4

 

Q10: Which one of the following Settlements comprised Zamindar as middleman to collect the land revenue?

1. Mahalwari Settlement

2. Ryotwari Settlement

3. Permanent Settlement

4. None of the above

Answer: 3

Quiz 16 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 6

Q1: Which of the following was the court language during the reign of Akbar?

1. Hindi

2. Urdu

3. Persian

4. Arabic

Answer: 3

 

Q2: What were the districts called in the Vijaynagar empire?

1. Nadu

2. Khurram

3. Kottam

4. Janpad

Answer: 3

 

Q3: Which was the first National News Agency of India?

1. The Indian Review

2. The Free Press of India

3. The Associated Press of India

4. None of the above

Answer: 3

 

Q4: The depiction of the stones of the previous lives of Gautama Buddha was first done in the art of

1. Sarnath Pillar of Asoka

2. Bharhut Stupa

3. Ajanta Caves

4. Eilora Caves

Answer: 2

 

Q5: The British Parliament can do everything except make a woman a man and a woman a man?To whom is this statement ascribed?

1. Dicey

2. Hegal

3. De Lolme

4. none of above

Answer: 3

 

Q6: Which of the following states did not come into being in 1987?

1. Mizoram

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Goa

4. Manipur

Answer: 4

 

Q7: The number of Zonal Councils in India is

1. Five

2. Four

3. Seven

4. Eight

Answer: 1

 

Q8: National Commission for Back ward Classes was established in

1. 1994

2. 1993

3. 1995

4. 1999

Answer: 2

 

Q9: Indravati Hydroelectric Project is the multipurpose projet of

1. Maharashtra state

2. Gujarat state

3. Orissa State

4. Tamil Nadu state

Answer: 3

 

Q10: Which sector contributes the maximum share in National income of India?

1. Primary

2. Secondary

3. Tertiary

4. All the above have equal share

Answer: 3

Quiz 11 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 1

Q1: What is called as the "Roof of the World"?

1. Indira Point

2. Kanchenjunga

3. Pamir Knot

4. Indira Col

Answer: 3

 

Q2: The illustrious names of Aryabhatta and Varahamihir are associated with the age of the

1. Guptas

2. Kushanas

3. Mauryas

4. Palas

Answer: 1

 

Q3: Who generally acknowledged as the pioneer of local self government in modern India?

1. Ripon

2. Mayo

3. Lytton

4. Curzon

Answer: 1

 

Q4: Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form?

1. Article 16

2. Article 17

3. Article 18

4. Article 15

Answer: 2

 

Q5: The idea of Pakistan was first conceived by

1. Muhammad Iqbal

2. M. A. Jinnah

3. Shaukat Ali

4. Aga Khan

Answer: 1

 

Q6: Which of the following countries has introduced "Direct Democracy"?

1. Russia

2. India

3. France

4. Switzerland

Answer: 4

 

Q7: Inflation occurs when aggregate supply is

1. More that aggregate demand

2. Less than aggregate demand

3. Equal to aggregate demand

4. None of the above

Answer: 2

 

Q8: Which State has the lowest per capita income in India?

1. Bihar

2. Orissa

3. Rajasthan

4. Gujrat

Answer: 2

 

Q9: In the budget figures of the Government of India, fiscal deficit is

1. Total expenditure - total receipts

2. Revenue expenditure - revenue receipts

3. Capital expenditure - capital receipts + market borrowings

4. Sum of budget deficit and Government's market borrowings and liabilities

Answer: 1

 

Q10: The eighth Joint Economic Group dialogue between China and India was held in January 2010 in Beijing, China after a gap of

1. two years

2. three years

3. four years

4. five years

Answer: 3

Quiz 12 | General Knowledge for IBPS – Part 2

Q1: According to the recently released World Bank Report, the Chinese economy grew by the close of fourth quarter of 2009 at the rate of

1. 9.7 percent

2. 10.7 percent

3. 10.8 percent

4. 11 percent

Answer: 2

 

Q2: As per the quality of life Index 2010, which was released worldwide in January 2010, the united States occupies the

1. Second Place

2. Third Place

3. Fifth Place

4. Seventh Place

Answer: 4

 

Q3: The India-France deal for civil nuclear corporation, which came into force in January 2010, had been signed between the two countries in

1. September 2008

2. October 2008

3. November 2008

4. December 2008

Answer: 1

 

Q4: Wodeyars were the ruler of

1. Princely State of Mysore

2. Princely State of Travancore

3. Vijayanagaram

4. None of these

Answer: 1

 

Q5: "Black Pagoda" is in

1. Egypt

2. Srilanka

3. Madurai

4. Konark

 

 

Answer: 4

 

 

Q6: The meeting of the Rajya Sabha are presided over by the

1. President

2. Vice President

3. Prime Minister

4. Speaker

Answer: 2

 

Q7: Lunar eclipse occurs on

1. A new moon day

2. A full moon day

3. A half moon day

4. both 1 and 2

Answer: 2

 

Q8: Which of the following crops helps in nitrogen fixation?

1. Rice

2. Wheat

3. Beans

4. Maize

Answer: 3

 

Q9: Detroit in the U. S. A. is known as the city of

1. Motor Car

2. Lights

3. Aeroplanes

4. Rockets

Answer: 1

 

Q10: The term "Fourth Estate" refers to

1. Backward States

2. Judiciary

3. Press

4. Tea Estate

Answer: 3

Quiz 09 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 9

1. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software

2. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.

3. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.

4. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.

5. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.

6. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.

7. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS

8. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.

9. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys

10. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking

Answers
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. B

Quiz 10 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 10

1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
e. None of these

2. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. All of the above
e. None of these

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?
a. Ink-jet
b. Daisy Wheel
c. Laser
d. Dot-matrix
e. None of these

4. A program written in machine language is called?
a. Assembler
b. Object
c. Computer
d. Machine
e. None of these

5. The father of Modern Computer is
a. Charles Babbage
b. Von-nuumann
c. Danies Ritchel
d. Blaise Pascal
e. None of these

6. The Word FTP stands for
a. File Translate Protocol
b. File Transit Protocol
c. File Transfer protocol
d. file typing protocol
e. None of these

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. Machine Language
d. COBOL
e. None of these

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by
a. Dot Matix
b. Laser Printer
c. Inkjet Printer
d. Plotter
e. None of these

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as
a. Corrupted
b. Volatile
c. Non-Volatile
d. Non-Corrupted
e.None of these

10.The linking of computers with a communication system is called
a. Networking
b. Pairing
c. Interlocking
d. Assembling
e. Sharing

Answers

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (a)
6. (c)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10.(a)

Quiz 08 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 8

1.The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
a. 16 address lines
b. 16 Buses
c. 16 Data lines
d. 16 routes
e. None of these

2. Data going into the computer is called
a. Output
b. algorithm
c. Input
d. Calculations
e. flow chart

3. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
a. LAN
b. DSL
c. RAM
d. USB
e. CPU

4. Microsoft Office is
a. Shareware
b.Public domain software
c. Open-sourse software
d. A vertical market application
e. An application suite

5. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
a. None of these
b. One
c. Two
d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
e. It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

6. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
a. Operating System
b. Computer
c. Office
d. Compiler
e. Interpreter

7. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
a. run faster
b. go on line
c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment
d. E-mail
e. None of these

8. Information travels between components on the mother board through
a. Flash memory
b. CMOS
c. Bays
d. Buses
e. Peripherals

9. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
a. Lines & spaces
b. Layers & Planes
c. Height & Width
d. Rows & Columns
e. None

10. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
a. mouse
b. logo
c. hand
d. palm
e. cursor

Answers

1. (c)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (c)
9. (d)
10. (e)

Quiz 07 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 7

1. Which of the following topology is least effected by adition or removal of node?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Bus
D. Mesh

2. Coaxial cables are good for ?
A. Digital transmission
B. Long distance transmission
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

3. When a pointer is positioned on a ….. it is shaped like a hand?
A. Gramatical error
B. Hyperlink
C. Spelling error
D. screen tip

4. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key

5. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.

6. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars

7. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system

8. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.

9. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
A. basic input/output system
B. secondary input/output system  peripheral
C. input/output system
D. marginal input/output system
E. None of these

10. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
A. Trojan horse
B. Boot sector
C. Script
D. Logic bomb
E. None of these

Answers
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. B

Quiz 06 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 6

1. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as
a. Boot
b. Bug
c. Biff
d. Strap
e. None of these

2. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________
a. Bug
b. Vice
c. Lice
d. Worm
e. None of these

3. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states.
a. Multivibrator
b. Flip-flop
c. Logic gates
d. laten
e. None of these

4. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as
a. Spam
b. Trash
c. Calibri
d. Courier
e. None of these

5.DOS stands for
a. Disk Operating System
b. Disk operating session
c. Digital Operating System
d. Digital Open system
e. None of these

6. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft
a. Babbage
b. Bill Gates
c. Bill Clinton
d. Bush
e. None of these

7. Which of the following are input devices.
a. Keyboard
b. Mouse
c. Card reader
d. Scanner
e. All of these

8. Examples of output devices are
a. Screen
b. Printer
c. Speaker
d. All of these
e. None of these

9. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer
a. Control unit
b. Central Processing unit
c. Arithmatic and language unit
d. Monitor
e. None of these

10. IBM stands for
a. Internal Business Management
b. International Business Management
c. International Business Machines
d. Internal Business Machines
e. None of these

Answers
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (e)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (c)

Quiz 05 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 5

1.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line
a. Compiler
b. Interpreter
c. Linker
d. Loader
e. None of these

2. ___________ is an OOP principle
a. Structured programming
b. Procedural programming
c. Inheritance
d. Linking
e. None of these

3. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications
a. Commercial
b. Scientific
c. Space
d. Mathematical
e. None of these

4. RAM stands for
a. Random origin money
b. Random only memory
c. Read only memory
d. Random access memory
e. None of these

5. 1 Byte = ?
a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 2 bits
d. 9 bits
e. None of these

6. SMPS stands for
a. Switched mode Power Suply
b. Start mode power supply
c. Store mode power supply
d. Single mode power supply
e. None of these

7. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
a. Modem
b. Multiplexer
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
e. None of these

8. VDU is also called
a. Screen
b. Monitor
c. Both 1 & 2
d. printer
e. None of these

9. BIOS stands for
a. Basic Input Output system
b. Binary Input output system
c. Basic Input Off system
d. all the above
e. None of these

10. Father of ‘C’ programming language
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. Prof Jhon Kemeny
c. Thomas Kurtz
d. Bill Gates
e. None of these

Answers
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5. (a)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (c)
9. (a)
10. (a)

Quiz 04 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 4

1. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these

2. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these

3. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these

4. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these

5. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these

6. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these

7. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these

8. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as …..
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these

9. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these

10. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these

Answers
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. B

Quiz 03 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 3

1. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)

2. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)

3. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)

4. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)

5. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)

6. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)

7. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)

8. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)

9. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)

10. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)

Quiz 01 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 1

1. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these

2. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these

3. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these

4. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these

5. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these

6. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command – based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these

7. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these

9. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these

10. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these

Answers
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. D
10.B

Quiz 02 | Computer Awareness for IBPS - Part 2

1. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)

2. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)

3. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)

5. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)

6. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)

7. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)

8. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)

9. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)

10. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)